Part 8 - Ch 15 Debt and Taxes
15-05-2024
15.1 The Interest Tax Deduction
15.2 Valuing the Interest Tax Shield
15.3 Recapitalizing to Capture the Tax Shield
15.4 Personal Taxes
15.5 Optimal Capital Structure with Taxes
Corporations pay taxes on their profits after interest payments are deducted.
With Leverage | Without Leverage | |
---|---|---|
EBIT | 2800 | 2800 |
Interest Expense | -400 | 0 |
Income before tax | 2400 | 2800 |
Taxes (35%) | -840 | -980 |
Net income | 1560 | 1820 |
(All) Investors receive 1560 + 400 (with leverage) vs. 1820 + 0 (without leverage).
The takeaway: in the presence of taxes, leverage increases firm value (equity value + debt value) because the total cash flow received by investors increases.
By how much the firm value increases?
\[980 - 840 = 140\]
We can manage to find the same number, as follows:
\[Interest\; Tax\; Shield = Corporate \;Tax \;Rate \times Interest \;Payments = \] \[35\% \times 400 \;million= 140\;million\]
Problem
Solution
\[5.35 \times 30\% = 1.61\;million\]
When a firm uses debt, the interest tax shield provides a corporate tax benefit each year.
This benefit is then computed as the present value of the stream of future interest tax shields the firm will receive.
\[CFs\;to\;investors\;(lev) = CFs\;to\;investors\;(no\;lev) + Interest\;tax\;shield\]
MM Proposition I with Taxes
The total value of the levered firm exceeds the value of the firm without leverage due to the present value of the tax savings from debt:
\[V^L = V^U + PV(interests\;tax\;shield)\]
Problem
Suppose ALCO plans to pay 60 million in interest each year for the next eight years, and then repay the principal of 1 billion in year 8.
These payments are risk free, and ALCO’s marginal tax rate will remain 39% throughout this period.
If the risk-free interest rate is 6%, by how much does the interest tax shield increase the value of ALCO?
Solution
Annual interest tax shield is:
\[1 \;billion \times 6\% \times 39\% = 23.4 \;million \;(for\;eigth\;years)\]
\[PV(Interest\;tax\;shield) = \frac{23,4}{(1+0,06)^1} + . . . + \frac{23,4}{(1+0,06)^8} = 145.31 \;million\]
The Interest Tax Shield with Permanent Debt: Typically, the level of future interest payments is uncertain due to:
For simplicity, we will consider the special case in which the above variables are kept constant. This is reasonable because:
Suppose a firm borrows debt D and keeps the debt permanently.
If the firm’s marginal tax rate is \(\tau_c\), and if the debt is riskless with a risk-free interest rate \(r_f\), then the interest tax shield each year is \(\tau_c \times r_f \times D\), and the tax shield can be valued as a perpetuity:
\[PV(interest\;tax\;shield) = \frac{\tau_c \times Interest}{r_f} = \frac{\tau_c \times (R_f \times D)}{r_f} = \tau_c \times D\]
Given a 21% corporate tax rate, this equation implies that for every 1 in new permanent debt that the firm issues, the value of the firm increases by 0.21.
Moreover, if the debt is fairly priced:
\[Market\;value\;debt = D = PV(future\;interest\;payments)\]
WACC with Taxes
It is easy to see that when a firm uses debt financing, the cost of the interest it must pay is offset to some extent by the tax savings from the interest tax shield.
Assuming \(\tau_c = 21\%\), D = 100,000 at 10 percent interest per year:
Interest expense | 10,000 |
Tax savings | - 2,100 |
After-tax cost of debt | 7,900 |
After-tax cost of debt is:
\[r_d \times (1-\tau_c)\]
Therefore, we can write the After-tax WACC:
\[r_{wacc} = \frac{E}{E+D} \times r_e + \frac{D}{E+D} \times r_d \times (1-\tau_c)\]
Or
\[r_{wacc} = \frac{E}{E+D} \times r_e + \frac{D}{E+D} \times r_d - \frac{D}{E+D} \times r_d \times \tau_c\]
Notice the decline in the WACC with Taxes. The factor (\(1-\tau_c\)) decreases \(r_d\).
The Interest Tax Shield with a Target Debt-Equity Ratio
Earlier we calculated the value of the tax shield assuming the firm maintains a constant level of debt. We can also assume that a firm maintains a constant debt-equity ratio instead.
When a firm adjusts its leverage to maintain a target debt-equity ratio, we can compute its value with leverage, VL, by discounting its free cash flow using the WACC.
The value of the interest tax shield can be found by comparing
Problem
Harris Solutions expects to have free cash flow in the coming year of 1.75 million, and its free cash flow is expected to grow at a rate of 3.5% per year thereafter.
Harris Solutions has an equity cost of capital of 12% and a debt cost of capital of 7%, and it pays a corporate tax rate of 40%.
If Harris Solutions maintains a debt-equity ratio of 2.5, what is the value of its interest tax shield?
Solution
First, compute pre-tax WACC and \(V^u\).
\[=\frac{E}{E+D} \times r_e + \frac{D}{E+D} \times r_d = \frac{1}{1+2.5} \times 12\% + \frac{2.5}{1+2.5} \times 7\% = 8.43\% \]
\(V^u\) is:
\[V^u = \frac{1.75\;million}{8.43\% - 3.5\%} = 35.50 \;million\]
Solution
Second, compute after-tax WACC and \(V^L\).
\[= \frac{1}{1+2.5} \times 12\% + \frac{2.5}{1+2.5} \times 7\% \times (1-0.4) = 6.43\% \]
\(V^L\) is:
\[V^L = \frac{1.75\;million}{6.43\% - 3.5\%} = 59.73 \;million\]
The value of the interest tax shield is:
\[V^L - V^U = 59.73 - 35.50 = 24.23\;million\]
When a firm makes a significant change to its capital structure, the transaction is called a recapitalization (or simply a “recap”).
Example
Value without leverage:
\[V_u = 20\;million\;shares \times 15 = 300\; million\]
Present value of tax shield (after recapitalization)
\[\tau_c \times D = 0.21 \times 100\; million = 21\;million\]
Thus, the total value of the levered firm is
\[300+21= 321\;million\]
Because the value of the debt is $100 million, the value of the equity is
\[321 - 100 = 221\;million\]
Although the value of the shares outstanding drops to 221 million, shareholders will also receive the 100 million that Midco will pay out through the share repurchase.
In total, they will receive the full 321 million, a gain of 21 million over the value of their shares without leverage.
That is, the firm has the incentive to make such Recap.
Assume Midco repurchases its shares at the current price of $15 per share. The firm will repurchase 6.67 million shares.
\[\frac{100\;million}{15} = 6.67\;million\;shares\]
Remaining:
\[20\;million - 6.67\;million = 13.33 \;million\;shares\;outstanding\]
The total value of equity is 221 million; therefore, the new share price is 16.575.
\[\frac{221\;million}{13.33} = 16.575\]
The total gain to shareholders is, again, 21 million
\[(16.575 - 15) = 1.575 \times 13.33 = 21\;million\]
Question: If the shares are worth 16.575 per share after the repurchase, why would shareholders tender their shares to Midco at $15 per share?
Arbitrage opportunity
If investors could buy shares for $15 immediately before the repurchase and sell these shares immediately afterward at a higher price, this would represent an arbitrage opportunity.
Realistically, the value of the Midco’s equity will rise immediately from 300 million to 321 million after the repurchase announcement.
That is, the stock price will rise from 15 to 16.05 immediately.
\[\frac{321\;million}{20\;million\;shares}=16.05\]
The takeway:
When securities are fairly priced, the original shareholders of a firm capture the full benefit of the interest tax shield from an increase in leverage.
The increase from 16.05 to 16.575 is simply due to the decreased number of outstanding shares.
Let’s analyze now the effect of personal taxes on our capital structure discussion.
So far, we have looked to the benefits of leverage in the presence of corporate taxes.
The rate that corporations paid as tax is usually different than that investors pay.
Additionally, the cash flows to investors are typically taxed twice. Once at the corporate level and then investors are taxed again when they receive their interest or divided payment.
Therefore, personal taxes have the potential to offset some of the corporate tax benefits of leverage. So, to determine the true tax benefit of leverage, we need to evaluate the combined effect of both corporate and personal taxes.
For individuals:
So, to debt holders: \((1-\tau_i)\)
To equity holders: \((1-\tau_c)\times(1-\tau_e)\)
Also, we can write:
\[(1-\tau^*) \times (1-\tau_i) = (1-\tau_c)\times(1-\tau_e)\]
We can interpret \(\tau^*\) as the effective tax advantage of debt:
if the corporation paid \((1-\tau^*)\) in interest, debt holders would receive the same amount after taxes as equity holders would receive if the firm paid 1 in profits to equity holders.
sometimes, this is called relative tax advantage of debt.
Using this structure, we can calculate the Effective Advantage of Debt as follows:
\[\tau^* = 1-\frac{(1-\tau_c)\times(1-\tau_e)}{(1-\tau_i)}\]
Notice that debt policy is irrelevant if
\[ (1-\tau_e) \times (1-\tau_c) = (1-\tau_i)\]
Final comments on Personal taxes
Tax rates vary for individual investors, and many investors are in lower tax brackets
Holding periods might also have an effect on personal taxes
Given the wide range of tax preferences and brackets across investors, it is difficult to know the true value of \(\tau^*\) for a firm.
Final comments on Personal taxes
\[V^L = V^U + \tau^* \times D\]
Consider the stylized Brazilian case and compute the effective tax advantage of debt.
\[\tau^* = 1-\frac{(1-0.39)\times(1-0.15)}{(1-0.275)} = 28.5\%\]
Do Firms Prefer Debt?
Additionally, many firms hold huge amounts of cash, actually making net debt negative.
Considering all the tax benefits of debt, why is that firms do not use more debt?
Taxable earnings
To receive the full tax benefits of leverage, a firm need not use 100% debt financing, but the firm does need to have taxable earnings.
The optimal level of leverage from a tax saving perspective is the level such that interest equals EBIT.
At the optimal level of leverage, the firm shields all of its taxable income, and it does not have any tax-disadvantaged excess interest.
In general, as a firm’s interest expense approaches its expected taxable earnings, the marginal tax advantage of debt declines, limiting the amount of debt the firm should use.
It seems that firms are under-leveraged consistently. Therefore, there must be more to this capital structure story (chap. 16).
Remember to solve:
QUESTIONS?
Henrique C. Martins
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